water causes objects (such as those plastic dishes in your dishwasher) to become moist, yet it does not possess wetness on its own. Nevertheless, wetness can also be characterized by the existence of liquid or moisture, implying that water must indeed be considered wet. Philosophers remain divided on this topic as well. Some assert that water qualifies as wet if individuals utilize the term wet to characterize it. Conversely, other philosophers adopt a more rational viewpoint. To be wet indicates a state of being coated with liquid, but liquid itself cannot be wet since it cannot envelop itself. So what is the right conclusion?
